Friday, September 19, 2025

Unoriented and oriented conformal completion of 1+1 dimensional spacetime

What we are doing here is playing in the sandbox of a conformally completed 1+1-dimensional spacetime. 


Duality and triality in action

The term “conformal compactification” is often used, but it is somewhat misleading. More accurately, what we perform is a completion: we extend spacetime by admitting infinity itself. In the flat R1,1 version of spacetime, infinity lingers only as a possibility—an unrealized horizon. But once we complete it into its S1×S1 form, infinity ceases to be merely potential: it becomes actual, tangible, part of the fabric.

Now, there are two distinct ways this completion may unfold: oriented and unoriented. In the unoriented version, R1,1 is completed by sewing on a single circle at infinity, upon which endless worldlines of the flat spacetime find their closure—though each closes, as a rule,  at a different point of the same circle. In the oriented version, however, we grant a deeper polarity: two circles are added, dividing the worldlines of the future from those of the past. Each kind closes upon its own eternal loop. Yet, such generosity comes with a price—an entire second copy of flat spacetime appears in the completion.

Metaphysically, this picture gains resonance. It reflects duality, echoing matter and antimatter. And beyond duality, it hints at triality: space, its mirror antispace, and the twin circles at infinity—mediators, thresholds, silent connectors between the two realms.

This essay continues the thread begun in Sunday special – projective cone. We pick up precisely where we left off there. 

Identifying points x and λx, with λ>0, on the null cone of R1,1 we obtain the oriented Grassmannian. To obtain the unoriented one, we additionally identify x with -x. The oriented Grassmannian is  nothing else but the torus S1⨉S1. What is then the unoriented one. What becomes of the torus when we identify its opposite points? Different things can happen, depending on what we call "opposite". One way of doing it is by taking the quotient of S1⨉S1 by the action of Z2 defined by

(z,w)⟼(1/z,-w),     |z| = |w| = 1.

This is described in details, for instance, in Conrad's online lecture note "Quotients by group actions", p.4, and following. We obtain the famous unorientable Klein bottle. But we have a different action of Z2 on the torus - our action is

(z,w)⟼(-z,-w).                (1)

Note. Well, we do not have (z,w), we have

(x1)2 + (x2)2 = (x3)2 + (x4)2 = 1.                   (2)     

But we can always set z = x1 + i x2, w = x3 + i x4. Then |z|= |w| =1, and changing the sign of x = (x1,x2,x3,x4) is the same as changing the signs of z and w.

Proposition 1. The quotient of the torus S1⨉S1 by the action of Z2 defined by (z,w)⟼(-z,-w) is again a torus. The diffeomorphism of the quotient space onto the torus induced by the map

φ(z,w) = (zw,w/z).                (3)

Proof. The map φ is smooth on S1⨉S1, and φ(z,w) = φ(-z,-w). Moreover, for any u,v in S1⨉S1, the equation φ(z,w)= (u,v) has exactly two solutions for (z,w):

1) z = u½v-½, w = u½v½,
2) z = -u½v-½, w = -u½v½.                (4)

Therefore φ maps the torus onto itself with the required kernel. QED.

Exercise 1. Make sure that you completely understand the proof above.

So torus has the very special property that it can double cover (and even n-cover) itself.

The above special feature holds for the null cone in R2,2, but does not hold in R4,2, where we have S3⨉S1 instead of S1⨉S1. For R4,2 taking the quotient by an analogous Z2 produces a topologically different manifold.

Parametrization of the unoriented Grassmannian

For the oriented Grassmannian we used Eq. (2) to set

x1 = cos(α), x2 = sin(α),
x3 = cos(β), x4 = sin(β) ,               (5)

to define uniquely the angles α and β of a point on the torus. However this parametrization distinguishes the points x and -x, which become identical under the equivalence relation defined by the action (1) of Z2. Can we find a parametrization of the new torus, obtained by this identification? To find this new parametrization we will use Eq. (3) and Proposition 1.

If we set z = e, w = e, then u = zw = ei(α+β), v = w/z =ei(β-α).  If we define then

φ = (β + α) mod 2π,
ψ = (β - α) mod 2π,                (6),

then (φ,ψ) give us the required parametrization. What we need for defining a point on the torus are cos and sin of φ and ψ. Using (5) and trigonometric formulas for cos and sin of a sum and of difference, we find:

cos(φ) = x1x3 - x2x4,
sin(φ) = x2x3 + x1x4,
cos(ψ)  = x1x3 + x2x4,
sin(ψ) = x2x3 - x1x4.

The required condition sin2+cos2 = 1 follows then automatically from (2).

Exercise 2. Verify the last statement.

Afternotes

19-09-25 16:50 

From Friday Funnies of Robert W. Malone





19 comments:

  1. Exercise 2 is really a piece of chocolate.
    Exercise 1 is not at all. I can't imagine the image torus, excuse the tautology. Will try some AI visualization instruments.

    Ark, please correct the fonts in formula (4) - there are too many numbers raised to the exponent.

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  2. "In the oriented version, however, we grant a deeper polarity: two circles are added, dividing the worldlines of the future from those of the past. Each kind closes upon its own eternal loop".

    Did I understand right that these two circles are located at the plus and minus infinities? They separate the future and the past not as the present does, but "on the other side," on the side of infinity, correct?

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    Replies
    1. The analogy is not exaxt. The circles stay inveriant under Lorentz transformations and translations in time. In this sense they are "absolutes" for the whole Poincare group and dilatations. The "present" is not invariant under time translations and special Lorentz transformations.

      Delete
    2. We will discuss these circles in the next post. Thank you for prompting me to do this.

      Delete

    3. "The circles are "absolutes" for the whole Poincare group and dilatations. The "present" is not invariant under time translations and special Lorentz transformations".

      Indeed, it seems that these two circles have more reason to be considered the “boundary” between the past and the future than the state we call “present,” which seems to be a rather shaky boundary.

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  3. Ark, could you please help me to "see" the new torus induced by the map φ(z,w) = (zw,w/z)? If visualization is even possible in this case...
    If, for example, the original torus has radius_1 = 1 and radius_2 = 4, what will be the radii of the new torus?

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  4. Please, note a typo just before formula (6): v = w/z = e^i(β-α)

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  5. And, finally, a few words about new parametrization given by
    z = e^iα, w = e^iβ, then u = zw = e^i(α+β), v = w/z = e^i(β-α).

    At first glance, I wanted to say that the proposed replacement is just rotation by sum and difference angles; but the rotation by (α+β) is not the same as rotation by -(α+β). The same with rotation by (β-α).
    After thinking for a while I realized that this trick is not about exponents and rotations, it is about modules and inversion, and it really works.
    That could be done because after compactification of R1 into a circle S1 we obtain new degrees of freedom, more room to maneuver.

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    Replies
    1. Perhaps it will be a good exercise to think what happens with just one circle S^1. Consider the map
      z -> z^2
      or e^{iα} -> e^{2iα}.

      The original circle becomes the double cover of itself, since the images of z and -z coincide.
      Withe torus the idea is essentially the same, but the formula somewhat more complicated.

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    2. Yes, for one circle it is easier. A one circle is mapped into a double circle. Looks a bit strange because it is expected that, vice versa, two different (opposite) points should be mapped into a single one.
      We have localized the root of my misunderstanding!

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    3. So, extra exercise follows. If z->z^2 works for the circle, why (z,w)->(z^2,w^2) would not be satisfactory for our torus? Why (3) with mixing z and w?

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    4. That is because equation φ(z,w)= (u,v) would have not two but four solutions for (z,w):
      1) z=u^1/2, w=v^1/2
      2) z=-u^1/2, w=v^1/2
      3) z=u^1/2, w=-v^1/2
      4) z=-u^1/2, w=-v^1/2
      While we want "exactly two solutions", but why? In order to comply with the Z2-group kernel?

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    5. :)) The answer came from my surf instructor (we are now in Egypt, enjoyng windsurfing), when he said: Watch you front hand! or Keep your back leg closer! Etc. You see, in surfing we have not only left and right hands and legs, but also front and back ones...)

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    6. However, this covering formula works for complex z, but not for real values. The mapping x -> x^2 of R1 yields a doubly covered positive half of R1, but not all of R1. This is probably why mathematicians prefer compact manifolds to non-compact ones.

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    7. @ Anna "we are now in Egypt," That explains why you were absent at Vladimirov's seminar on Thursday. I was wondering...

      Delete

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