Spheres of infinite radius, those that cross the infinity point, are
just planes. Spheres are mysterious, planes are mysterious too, perhaps
even more so.
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Even more so... |
This post is a straightforward continuation of Lie Sphere Geometry: Part 9: Spheres of negative radius. The stereographic projection of the oriented sphere
St(m) = {x∈S3: x·m = cos(t)}, 0<t<π , (0)
leads to the following equation (Eq. (4) of Part 9) for its image in R3:
y2(m0+cos(t)) - 2m'·y= m0 - cos(t), (1)
where
m '= m1e1+m2e2+m3e3. (2)
We have already considered the case of m0+cos(t) ≠ 0. We consider now the case of m0+cos(t) = 0, i.e. m0 = -cos(t). Eq (1) then becomes
m'·y = cos(t). (3)
Definition 1. With n∈S2⊂R3 and h∈R, the oriented plane Πh(n) with unit normal n and signed height h, is a pair (n,h) and associated with it the set [Πh(n)] defined as:
[Πh(n)] = {y∈R3: y·n = h}. (4)
Remark. To see the meaning of h, suppose we orient the Cartesian axes of R3 so that n
is the unit vector in the z-direction. Then h is the value of the
z-coordinate at which the plane intersects the z-axis. Thus the name
"signed height". Notice that while Πh(n) and Π-h(-n) define the same set, these are two different oriented planes, as they have opposite normals.
Proposition 1. The image of the oriented sphere St(m)⊂S3 , containing -e0, under the stereographic projection x⟼y is the oriented Πh(n') , where n' = m'/sin(t), h = cot(t).
Proof. Comparing Eq. (3) with (4) we get instantly that n' has to be ε=±1 times the normalized vector m'. Now, (m0)2+m'2=1, and m0 = -cos(t). It follows that m'2 = 1- cos2(t) = sin(t)2. Since 0<t<π, we deduce that ||m'|| = sin(t).
Thus n'=ε m'/sin(t), h = ε cot(t). In Part 9 we have calculated (Eq. (11)) the image n'' of n:
n''(x)i = (1+x0)-1(mi/sin(t) -xi(m0+cos(t))/(sin(t)(1+x0)) ,
which now reduces to
n''(x)i = (1+x0)-1(mi/sin(t)).
Since 1+x0 > 0, we deduce that ε = 1.
⎕
In the next post we will deal with the inverse stereographic projection of oriented spheres and planes.
P.S. 24-04-25 17:41 Today, Laura posted her first article on Substack:
Letters From the Edge of Reality
P.S. 25-04-25 12:03 Yesterday in a
comment Bjab wrote:
"Consider three spheres St(m), St-ε(m) and St+ε(m) where ε is a small number and m is a fixed vector. Let St(m) pass through -e0. Then St-ε(m) and St+ε(m) do not pass through -e0.
All three spheres have the same direction (insidnes).
Now let's look at the projections of these three spheres.
The projection of the sphere St-ε(m) has the opposite direction (insidnes) than the projection of the sphere St+ε(m). Therefore, the projection of the sphere St(m) cannot have a direction."
Here is an illustration with three circles. I have shown normals for St-ε(m) and St+ε(m) and their stereographic projections, using the formulas from the posts:
I didn't draw the normal to the middle line, but it is easy to guess what it would be.
Coordinates on the picture are x1=x,x2=y,x0=z.
In coordinates x0,x1,x2, I take t=π/2, ε=π/4, m={0,-1,0}.
P.S. 25-04-25 19:26 Yesterday during Valdimirov's seminar “Fundamental physics basics” A. Yu, Sevalnikov presented a talk on "Ten Aspects of Understanding Time: Philosophical Implications". One slide of his talk attracted my special attention:
I strongly disagree with his statement about "events" in quantum theory. Contemplating writing to the Author in order to explain the situation in quantum physics with "events". After all I published a number of papers in physics journals about "events" and "time of events".
St(m) = {x∈S3: x·m = cos(t)}, 0
ReplyDeleteThis definition changed (due to range of t) on purpose?
Πh(n) = {y∈R3: x·n = h}. (4) ->
Πh(n) = {x∈R3: x·n = h}. (4)
Thanks. Fixed.
DeleteOne bracket lacking in the last expression of the post, the n''.
ReplyDeleteFWIW.
Would it be correct to extrapolate Prop.1 to 4-dim case as stating that the image of projection from 4d to 3-dim space in that case would just be a flat Euclidean space, a 3d analog to the 2d flat plane?
Thanks. I have messed up the dimensions in the post. Fixed now. I hope....
ReplyDelete@Ark: "I have messed up the dimensions in the post. Fixed now."
DeleteNo, you have not. You have not.
So restore previous state.
DeleteWhat is wrong now? Perhaps I did not sleep enough last night? I do not see anything wrong.
Delete@Bjab Have Mercy!
DeleteSt(m) = {x∈S4: x·m = cos(t)} ->
DeleteSt(m) = {x∈S3: x·m = cos(t)}
and so on
Yes, yes, yes. I got it all by myself. Now I will check again. My head is spinning.
DeleteApologies if my questions or comments caused any issues or troubles by creating confusion.
DeleteProposition 1. [...] is the oriented [...] ->
ReplyDeleteI think that this plane (as a plane) is not oriented in the sense of "insidness". This plane is at the border of oriented spheres (spheres with different orientations) not going through -e0.
* ... oriented spheres (spheres with different orientations) projections of spheres not going through -e0.
DeleteThey are oriented in the sense that the normal is specified. Planes (n,h) and (-n,-h) are the same as sets, but they have opposite normals.
DeletePerhaps I will change the definition to make it clear. The definition, as it is at the present moment, is indeed confusing.
DeleteChanged the definition, expanded the Remark afterwards.
DeleteRe P.S. today, thanks for letting us know.
ReplyDeleteWhen can we expect your full appearance there on Substack?
For now I have no such plans. I did not see any math on Substack yet.
Delete@Ark
ReplyDeleteLet me explain why the plane that is the projection of the sphere passing through the point -e0 has no direction.
Consider three spheres St(m), St-ε(m) and St+ε(m) where ε is a small number and m is a fixed vector. Let St(m) pass through -e0. Then St-ε(m) and St+ε(m) do not pass through -e0.
All three spheres have the same direction (insidnes).
Now let's look at the projections of these three spheres.
The projection of the sphere St-ε(m) has the opposite direction (insidnes) than the projection of the sphere St+ε(m). Therefore, the projection of the sphere St(m) cannot have a direction.
Thanks. First the discussion is about the projections of an "oriented sphere", not just "sphere". In the post the orientation of the resulting oriented plane has been calculated.
DeleteAs for you example with three spheres - I will think about it.
In my previous comment i meant only oriented spheres.
Delete@Bjab, @Ark, cannot it be that this hard-to-define-orientation plane has a relation the Moebius strip?
DeleteIt is not do "hard" to define. It has been defined by a rather simple formula. I am preparing an illustration that should (I hope) make Bjab happy. I twill be a P.S. to the note.
Delete@Bjab Posted a P.S. If you have any questions, comments, objections, we can discuss them now in details.
Delete@Ark,
DeleteThank you very much for the wonderful "illustration with three circles". With such a representation of the direction everything is clear.
Another representation of the orientation of circles (on the plane) using pseudovectors consistent with the right-hand rule, (for example up for the blue circle and down for the red circle) would require that for smaller epsilon, such a pseudovector would have to decrease to zero and the straight line would have no orientation.
@Ark, @Bjab, what if we apply the "three circles" idea to the sphere at the turning point t = pi (coordinates (0, -1, 0) in the picture)? There, the sphere shrinks to a point and turns inside out, and its normal changes orientation to the opposite. No conflict with the orientation of the projections, they all turn over synchronously with the originals, but the flip itself is worth noting! The normal direction at this point is discontinuous, it behaves much the same as the normal to the Mobius strip projected onto a plane.
Delete"...but the flip itself is worth noting."
DeleteIs there a flip or is there not? - that is the question.
"The normal direction at this point is discontinuous"
Well I can see that I can't see discontinuity.
Also sorry but I can't see any connection with Mobius strip.
@Bjab "Also sorry but I can't see any connection with Mobius strip."
DeleteI will keep it in mind in the future, after we return to 6D.
Mobius strip is definitely related to spinors, maybe i'm getting ahead of events, but it has to show up somewhere.
ReplyDeleteIf so, this knowledge is probably hidden somewhere in the Vedas, but translators and interpreters missed it because of their lack of knowledge and concepts. We will find it!
DeleteArk, I like your decisive intention, indeed, in the Vedas everyone can find everything he/she is looking for. But the knowledge we need now is much easier to find in Rozenfeld's "Non-Euclidean Geometries"
DeleteBut the Mobius strip is a manifold with a boundary (the product of a segment and a projective line), and a spinor is most likely a topological feature that has no boundaries, for example, a projective plane (the product of two projective lines). It is no coincidence that two complex numbers are used to describe a spinor.
DeleteIgor, right you are, I mean Moebius strip without the boundary. I guess it is homeomorphic to a projective plane. Moebius strip carries the main characteristic of spinor, which is 4pi-periodicity, or two-valuedness.
Delete